Question Do you believe Mary was a virgin her entire life? Many
Catholics I talk to believe she was a virgin forever.
Answer Mary was a virgin when Christ was conceived in her womb.
Centuries before his birth, the prophet Isaiah had predicted:
"Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin
shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel"
(Isaiah 7:14).
This prophecy was fulfilled in Christ, as affirmed by the evangelist
Matthew: "Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring
forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being
interpreted is, God with us" (Matthew 1:23).
All Christians believe that Christ was born of a virgin woman. This
is important, firstly, because it was necessary for Jesus to fulfill the
prophecies of Scripture about the Messiah. Otherwise Jesus of Nazareth
could not possibly be the promised Messiah. Secondly, the doctrine on
the virgin birth of Christ is foundational because Jesus is not merely
human; He is also the Son of God. The virgin birth of Christ allows for
the dual nature of Christ; he is both God and man.
But did Mary remain virgin throughout her lifetime?
It is curious why we should even ask this question. What is the
theological significance of the doctrine of the perpetual virginity of
Mary? Should we perhaps look at virginity as a more blessed state than
marriage? The Catholic Church so teaches and curses you if you think
otherwise. “If any one saith, that the marriage state is to be placed
above the state of virginity, or of celibacy, and that it is not better
and more blessed to remain in virginity, or in celibacy, than to be
united in matrimony; let him be anathema” (Council of Trent, Session
24, Canon 10).
Early in church history, asceticism, monasticism and celibacy begun
to be viewed as means of sanctification. Sexual relations, even within
the context of marriage, were seen as defiling. Given this prejudice, it
is not surprising that the cult of the Virgin arose. Thus, for example,
Epiphanius (A.D. 375) wrote: “And to the holy Mary, the title Virgin
is invariably added, for that holy woman remains undefiled.”
But this is contrary to the teaching of Scripture. “Marriage is
honourable in all, and the bed undefiled” (Hebrews 13:4). The Bible
compares the love relationship between Christ and His church to the
marriage relationship between husband and wife. “For this cause shall
a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife,
and they two shall be one flesh. This is a great mystery: but I speak
concerning Christ and the church” (Ephesians 5:31,32).
So, putting aside the bias against God’s holy gift of marital sex,
we should expect that Mary and Joseph her husband had a normal married
relationship after the birth of Jesus Christ.
After showing that Christ was born of a virgin, the evangelist
Matthew goes on to say that Joseph "knew her not till she had
brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS"
(1:25). "Knew her" is the biblical expression for the act of
marriage. Joseph did not know Mary "till" she gave birth to
her firstborn, Jesus. The implication is clear enough.
Also, the gospels mention that Jesus had brothers and sisters.
"Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary?
and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his
sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these
things?” (Mt 13:55,56). And again: "There came then his brethren
and his mother, and, standing without, sent unto him, calling him. And
the multitude sat about him, and they said unto him, Behold, thy mother
and thy brethren without seek for thee” (Mark 3:31,32).
Catholic writers stumble on each other trying to find excuses to
explain away how Jesus could have brothers and sisters and yet Mary
remained a virgin all her life. They appeal to apocryphal writings, such
as the so-called Protoevangelium of James, saying that they were
actually Joseph’s offspring from a previous marriage. Others say that
they were his cousins or relatives. If this was the case, why would the
biblical authors use the word ‘brothers’ instead of ‘relatives’
and ‘cousins’? (cf. Luke 1:36; Colossians 4:10).
From an honest reading of the New Testament, one concludes that Mary
was a virgin until the birth of Christ. In order to uphold the doctrine
of perpetual virginity, the Scriptures has to be strained to near
breaking point. Yet, despite the lack of Biblical evidence, the Catholic
Church curses every Christian who does not believe in the perpetual
virginity of Mary. If anyone does not confess that Christ “was
incarnate by the holy, glorious, God-bearer, ever-virgin Mary,
and born of her, let him be anathema” (The Second Council of
Constantinople).
Catholic defense and rebuttal
After publishing the article above, a Catholic friend sent me a
defense of the Roman Catholic doctrine. This is a brief rebuttal to the
main Catholic arguments. The Catholic argument is in blue;
the rebuttal is in black.
Matthew 1:24-25, which reads, "When Joseph awoke, he did as the
angel of the Lord had commanded him and took his wife into his home. He
had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him
Jesus." The word "until" seems to indicate that after the
birth of Jesus there were normal marital relations. However, the Greek
word heos which is translated as until, does not imply that
anything happened after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it. The point
of the verse is that Joseph was not responsible for the conception of
Jesus. Another example of the word "until" being used this way
is found in Luke 1:80. In reference to John the Baptist it states,
"The child grew and became strong in spirit, and he was in the
desert until the day of his manifestation to Israel." Does this
mean that once he appeared publicly he left the desert? It might appear
so, but we know that he was in the desert after that.
The comparison with Luke 1:80 is misleading because the
grammatical construction in different. In Luke 1:80 the Greek word heos is used alone whereas we have heos
hou in Matthew 1:25.
The Greek construction (heos hou or heos hotou)
has only two major connotations in the New Testament. In a few instances
it has the temporal meaning "while" (a meaning than can hardly
be applied to the passage in question). The other meaning is
"until," and, without exception, implies a discontinuation of
the action of the main clause. In the case of Matthew 1:25, it would
mean that Joseph "had no union with [Mary] until she gave birth to
a son [but then he did have union with her]." (Swendsen E, Evangelical
Answers, Reformation Press).
If Joseph and Mary never had sexual relations, why didn't
Matthew simply write, "He knew her not until the day of his death"? Rather he
reported the limits of their unusual behaviour as a married couple: Joseph knew
her not until the birth of Jesus. The assertion that Joseph never knew
his wife is pure speculation and cannot be supported by this text.
What about the verses that speak about the brothers and sisters of
Jesus? For instance, Matthew 13:55-56: "Is not this carpenter's
son? is not His mother called Mary? and His brethren, James, and Joses,
and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us?"
Could Matthew be referring to Jesus' cousins? Although both Greek and
English have a word for cousin, Aramaic, the language spoken by Jesus,
does not. Hence the words brothers and sisters are used.
The New Testament was written in Greek, not Aramaic. In Greek there
are words both for brother adelphos and for cousin anepsios
(as in Colossians 4:10). The Holy Spirit who inspired the New Testament
could have employed anepsios if James, Joses and the others were
merely Jesus' cousins. He could have used the word suggenes (as
in Luke 1:36) if they were relatives. But of course He didn't. The Holy
Spirit chose the word adelphos that means brothers!
These terms can also be used to refer to friends. Observe how Jesus
Himself uses the word "brothers" in Matthew 28:10 and see what
happens in verse 10: "Then said Jesus unto them, 'Be not afraid: go
tell my brethren that they go into Galilee, and there they shall see
me'...The eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain which Jesus
had ordered them." Were the disciples His siblings? Of course not!
We do not contend that adelphos always means natural, blood
brothers. As in English, adelphos (brothers) could also be used
in a spiritual sense. The Bible calls all Christians “brethren,” and
Jesus is called our elder “brother” (Hebrews 2:11). However it is
clear that this is not the sense used in Matthew 13:55 and the other
passages, for these brethren were hardly His friends or disciples! They
did not even believe in Him! "Neither did his brethren believe in
him" (John 7:5).
A comparison of the three gospel accounts of the women at the foot of
the cross demonstrates that James and Joseph, two of the named brothers,
are the sons of Mary and Cleophas (Matthew 27:56, Mark 15:40, and John
19:25). This Mary is obviously not the mother of Jesus, as she is
mentioned in addition to her. Another obvious reason is the fact that
Jesus' mother was married to a man named Joseph, not Cleophas.
For this argument to have any merit, you need to prove without a
shadow of a doubt that James and Joseph, the children of the Mary at the
foot of the cross, are the same James and Joseph mentioned in Matthew
13:55. Failing to do so, the conclusion is uncertain.
In Mark 6:3 Jesus is called "THE" son of Mary not
"A" son of Mary. Elsewhere, Mary is called the mother of
Jesus, but never the mother of anybody else.
Eric Swendsen writes:
The presence of the article does not necessarily imply absolute
singularity, any more than the absence of the article necessarily
implies plurality. Should we likewise conclude that since Jesus is
referred to as "a son" of Mary in Luke 1:31 she must have had
other sons as well? Or, since in John 4:5 the patriarch Joseph is called
"the son" of Jacob, do we conclude that Jacob had no other
sons? (Swendsen E, Evangelical Answers, Reformation Press).
Even Protestant reformers such as Martin Luther, John Calvin and
Ulrich Zwingli taught that Mary remained a virgin. They believed that it
was the clear teaching of Scripture.
Though we greatly respect these Reformers, they were not infallible.
Our ultimate authority is the Bible.
This is a case of reading too much into a text! Mary's question was
the obvious one to make because she was not at the present time having a
sexual relation with a man. If Mary made this vow to perpetual
virginity, she would have had to ask, "How can this be, since I
will never know a man?" Of course, she said nothing of the sort.
She asked: "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"
Besides, why should a Jewish woman preparing to get married make a vow
to life-long virginity?
You remember that His brothers did not believe in Him, at least up to
this point. Jesus would rather entrust His believing Mother to the care
of His beloved disciple John, than to His unbelieving half-brothers.
Mary was a virgin at the conception and the birth of Jesus, her
first-born son. However, the perpetual virginity of Mary is not
taught in the Bible. This belief is an invention of human tradition.